Alright, I feel embarrassed to have to ask a rules question here, particularly one that seems so fundamental and obvious, but my buddy swears to lord god baby jesus and thor that a 'judge' at FNM told him this is how Magic is played:
I'll keep it real simple. I have two dudes, let's say two 3/3 dudes, not tokens. You cast Lightning Bolt on one of them. On the stack, I cast Unsummon. Unsummon resolves and returns said 3/3 dude to my hand. Lightning Bolt then:
A) Fizzles
B) Gets to choose another legal target as it resolves and kills my other 3/3 dude
For 19 years, as far as I've ever known, the answer is A. My buddy absolutely swears it is B. He said a 'judge' told him so at FNM recently. I told him his 'judge' is a moron. It seems to me, the implications of it being B are immense. For instance, what if the second 3/3 dude belongs to him and not me?
The actual play, by the way, was him casting Cutthroat Maneuvers on his own Insatiable Harpy and his own Agent of Fates, I responded by casting the unsummon aspect of Simic Charm on his Agent of Fates. He argues that after Simic Charm resolves, he gets to re-pick the second target of Cutthroat Maneuvers and cast it on Insatiable Harpy and now on his Asphodel Wanderer instead. I argued that the spell 'half-fizzles'. The Harpy gets +1/+1, the Agent goes back to his hand, and that's the end of it. I made the above Lightning Bolt argument to him but that still didn't sway him. We tried a quick google for the ruling but it's sort of hard to google it specifically, so here I am!